کنکور ۱۴۰۴ نوبت اول

گروه آزمایشی زبان خارجه

زبان انگلیسی

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وقت مجاز: 105 دقیقه

آزمون نمره منفی دارد.

Part A: Grammar

Directions: Questions 1-15 are incomplete sentences. Beneath each sentence, you will see four options (1), (2), (3), and (4). Choose the option that best completes the sentence. Then mark the correct choice on your answer sheet.

1- Writing a research paper is generally ______ difficult as teaching at university; that is, their levels of difficulty are similar.



2- Whenever I cannot understand the meaning of a word, I look it ______ in a dictionary so that I can understand what the book is saying.



3- To know his perspective on time ______ during the pandemic, and what we can do about it, I spoke to Tim Urban, the author of the blog “Wait But Why.”



4- After their meeting, they became closer friends and he thought he could talk ______ about his problems to his friend.



5- This is the process ______ the seller can be sure that the Bitcoins he or she is receiving are real.



6- New Year holidays are in just a few weeks and I look forward ______ time with family.



7- ______ for the villagers who rallied to save it, the lighthouse would have been auctioned off decades ago.



8- You always need cash flow to stay in business, ______ you often hear the phrase “cash is king.”



9- They prefer depositing their money in a single account ______ it in several different ones.



10- She won’t stop talking about conspiracy theories, ______ my attempts to explain that they are false and dangerous.



11- Each member contributes original musical compositions to the group, ______ their friend and mentor, Mr. Coleman.



12- ______ extensively in Eastern Europe, I can say with great pride that Bulgaria is exquisitely beautiful.



13- Technical hiccups ______, the evening felt very smooth and everybody was pleased and happy.



14- Last week, the UN security council passed a resolution calling for an immediate ceasefire in the war-torn region, ______.



15- The incident spurred him and other students into action ______ a consequential effect on their education.



Part B: Vocabulary

Directions: Questions 16-35 are incomplete sentences. Beneath each sentence, you will see four words or phrases marked (1), (2), (3), and (4). Choose the one word or phrase that best completes the sentence. Then mark the correct choice on your answer sheet.

16- Jack showed me his ______ of rare books. I was surprised to see the first edition of so many important books among them.



17- The best time to ______ for a flood is when the sky is clear and your weekend is free, not when local officials are telling you to seal up windows and head for higher ground.



18- The challenge is that the job looks very ______, but it is really very complex because every detail is important.



19- A manufacturer has been fined $300,000 for employing children as young as 14 to ______ “dangerous machinery” and requiring them to work more hours than the law allows.



20- The idea that it is “too ______” to eat healthy food and that junk food is cheaper is nonsense.



21- Critics believe that Jackson’s complete lack of ______ in presenting his ideas suggests that he is not a serious candidate.



22- The minimum ______ that should be required of individuals offering investment counsel services to the public have recently been announced.



23- Slave-owners worked their slaves hard, demanded complete ______ from them, and disciplined those who ignored their owners’ orders.



24- The hardwood floors in our house are badly ______ in several places because my children pushed and pulled the heavy furniture as they were playing.



25- If the territorial ______ of this country is threatened, we will certainly use all the means at our disposal to protect it.



26- Don’t let a/an ______ matter like applesauce grow a millimeter larger than it has to. Be diplomatic and ask your father to order both varieties.



27- Though not many citizens would openly sympathize with their motives or methods, the courage of the rebels has won ______ admiration at all levels in Britain.



28- The age of the automobile and the truck have put this historic crossroad city between East and West into an almost ______ traffic jam.



29- After they ______ into a new policy without thinking it through, the U.N. officials tried to rationalize it in vain.



30- As Australian officials planned to cut Medicare by at least $250 billion as part of their proposal to balance the budget by the year 2024, social activists in healthcare ______ alarm.



31- Her stubborn ______ may be one reason for her entrance into the New York City Marathon. Not everyone believes it’s wise for her to run so soon after that terrible accident.



32- In many cases, the statute does not say precisely what agencies should do, giving them considerable ______ in interpreting the law and developing regulations.



33- Political analysts said that it reflected the ______ nature of this rebellion—that is, it was not a well-formed coup but a protest without a plan or internal organization.



34- If you stay up late at night, you may fall into a loop of ______ or repetitive intrusive thoughts with no satisfactory outcome.



35- His account of the siege of Jericho is completely ______ by his apparent ignorance of the British excavations of a decade ago which proved that the so-called “walls of Jericho” are actually a thousand years older than the time of Joshua.



Part C: Sentence Structure

Directions: Choose the sentence with the best word order for each of the following series. Then mark the correct choice on your answer sheet.

36- The country ______ the two champions will meet to fight for the gold medal is located in South Africa.



37- Being independent is not ______ cutting off all ties with family and friends and abandoning those who love you.



38- They have rarely gone into debt ______ their holdings, which means that they do not have to sell land or buildings at low prices to ensure cash flow.



39- Temperatures in the area of the fire ______ anywhere from the upper 80s to just shy of 100, depending on the smoke cover, said Scott Rowe, a meteorologist with the National Weather Service.



40- Jane’s frantic and weird behavior ought not ______ you by surprise, particularly as she has recently lost her significant other as a result of a horrible accident that has left its mark on her personal and professional life.



Part D: Language Functions

Directions: Read the following conversations between two people and choose the answer choice (1), (2), (3), or (4) that best completes the blank. Then mark the correct choice on your answer sheet.

A: Hey, Joe! Do you know who ...(41)... about Vicky’s surprise retirement party?

B: Well, I’m not sure; but if I had to guess, I think it would be Harry.

A: So do I! The guy’s so talkative; ...(42)... in his mouth!

B: I think we must talk to him. After all, it’s not his first time, and someone has to address the. ...(43)... in the room!

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A: I’m so glad that Dave and Mike have decided to forget about the past and ...(44)... .

B: Same here! They were such good friends before that meaningless argument.

A: That’s right! I remember that they used to be thick as ...(45)... in the old days.

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Part E: Cloze Test

Directions: Read the following passage and decide which choice (1), (2), (3), or (4) best fits each space.

The relationship between media violence exposure and aggressive behavior has been the subject of social, political, and scientific attention for decades. Experimental studies of exposure to violent television and video games ....................(46) short-term increases in aggressive behavior in children, adolescents, and adults. Also, correlational studies suggest a longer-term ....................(47) between media violence exposure and aggressive behavior in the natural environment. The importance of studying the relationship between media violence exposure and aggressive behavior has increased with the evolution of more complex and realistic media formats (e.g., from television to video games), which has raised concerns about the (48) of early studies of television-based media violence exposure to modern-day television special effects and realistic interactive video games. Home-based video games, for example, have increased ....................(49) in sophistication, realism, and prevalence during the past 20 years. This growth and change in media formats ....................(50) more modern research on the impact of media violence exposure in general and video game violence in particular. Studies of video game violence exposure have typically shown a ....................(51) with aggression in samples of children and adolescents. There are good reasons, such as the participant nature of video-game playing as compared to the more passive nature of viewing television, to ....................(52) that video game violence exposure may be more strongly related to aggressive behavior than television violence exposure. One early experimental study found no difference between the impact of video game vs. televised violence on short-term aggressive behavior in children (both types of media violence ....................(53) short-term aggressive behavior). However, there has been a considerable increase in the realism and (54) of violence in video games since that study was conducted. Surprisingly, however, there has been ....................(55) study comparing television and video game exposure.
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Part F: Reading Comprehension

Directions: Read the passages and answer the questions that follow.

Passage 1:

Roald Amundsen was a key figure in polar exploration. Born to a family of ship-owners and inspired by Fridtjof Nansen and Sir John Franklin, he grew up immersed in the sea trade. In 1903, Amundsen led the first expedition to successfully traverse the Northwest Passage. During two winters spent at King William Island, he picked up invaluable tips from local Inuit people. Many successful expeditions followed, including the race to the South Pole with Robert Falcon Scott.

In the 1920s, Amundsen had his mind set on an aerial North Pole expedition. The first attempt in 1923 failed—when trying to fly from Alaska to Spitsbergen, the aircraft was damaged and Amundsen and his companion Oskar Omdal of the Royal Norwegian Navy abandoned the journey. In 1925, Amundsen and American Lincoln Ellsworth tried to reach the North Pole by air. When the aircraft was damaged, the crew worked for more than three weeks to clean up an airstrip to take off from ice. They shoveled 600 tons of ice while consuming only one pound of daily food rations. They returned triumphant when everyone thought they had been lost forever. In 1926, Amundsen and 15 other men, led by aeronautical engineer Umberto Nobile, made the first crossing of the Arctic in the airship Norge. They left Spitsbergen on 11 May 1926, flew over the North Pole on 12 May, and landed in Alaska the following day. Amundsen and Wisting also became the first men to have reached both geographical poles.

56- The underlined word “he” in paragraph 1 refers to ______.



57- The underlined word “traverse” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.



58- According to paragraph 2, which of the following shows the correct chronological order of events?



59- All of the following words are mentioned in the passage EXCEPT ______.



60- According to the passage, which of the following statements is true?



Passage 2:

Earth’s atmosphere is composed almost entirely of the gases nitrogen (78%) and oxygen (21%), but several gases that exist in trace amounts—concentrations of less than a fraction of a percent—have a great impact on Earth’s climate. These are greenhouse gases—gases that allow solar radiation to pass through the atmosphere and warm the Earth, but that absorb the heat that the Earth radiates back to space, trapping it as a blanket traps body heat to keep us warm on a cold night. Small changes in the atmospheric concentration of these gases can lead to big changes in Earth’s temperature and climate, making the difference between ice ages, when mastodons roamed the Earth, and the sweltering heat in which the dinosaurs lived. Without the heating caused by the greenhouse effect, Earth’s average surface temperature would be only about −18 °C. On Venus, the very high concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere causes an extreme greenhouse effect resulting in surface temperatures as high as 450 °C.

Although the greenhouse effect is a naturally occurring phenomenon, the effect is intensified by the emission of greenhouse gases into the atmosphere as the result of human activity. From the beginning of the Industrial Revolution through the end of the 20th century, the amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere increased by roughly 30 percent and the amount of methane more than doubled. Scientists have predicted that human-related increases in atmospheric carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases could lead by the end of the 21st century to an increase in the global average temperature of 0.3 to 4.8 °C relative to the 1986– 2005 average. This global warming will alter Earth’s climates and disrupt food production in certain regions.

61- All of the following are mentioned in paragraph 1 EXCEPT ______.



62- Which of the following best describes the scientists’ prediction about people’s life on Earth at the end of the 21st century mentioned in paragraph 2?



63- Which of the following pairs of techniques is used in paragraph 2?



64- The passage provides sufficient information to answer which of the following questions? I. What is the most important human activity contributing to the greenhouse effect now? II. What were the causes for the extinction of mastodons and dinosaurs? III. Is the phenomenon known as greenhouse effect confined to planet Earth?



65- According to the passage, which of the following statements is NOT true?



Passage 3:

The English Renaissance was a cultural and artistic movement in England dating from the late 15th to the early 17th century. It is associated with the pan-European Renaissance that is usually regarded as beginning in Italy in the late 14th century. [1] The beginning of the English Renaissance is often taken, as a convenience, to be 1485, when the Battle of Bosworth Field ended the Wars of the Roses and inaugurated the Tudor Dynasty. Renaissance style and ideas, however, were slow to penetrate England, and the Elizabethan era in the second half of the 16th century is usually regarded as the culmination of the English Renaissance. [2]

The English Renaissance is different from the Italian Renaissance in several ways. The dominant art forms of the English Renaissance were literature and music. Visual arts in the English Renaissance were much less significant than in the Italian Renaissance. The English period began far later than the Italian, which is usually considered to begin in the late 14th century, and was moving into Mannerism and the Baroque by the 1550s or earlier. [3] In contrast, the English Renaissance can only be said to begin, shakily, in the 1520s, and continued until perhaps 1620.

England had a strong tradition of literature in the English vernacular, which gradually increased as English use of the printing press became common by the mid-16th century. By the time of Elizabethan era, a vigorous literary culture in both drama and poetry included poets such as Edmund Spenser, whose verse epic The Faerie Queene had a strong influence on English literature but was eventually overshadowed by the lyrics of William Shakespeare, Thomas Wyatt and others. Typically, the works of these playwrights and poets circulated in manuscript form for some time before they were published, and above all the plays of English Renaissance theatre were the outstanding legacy of the period. [4]

The notion of calling this period “The Renaissance” is a modern invention, having been popularized by the historian Jacob Burckhardt in the 19th century. The idea of the Renaissance has rightly come under increased criticism by many cultural historians, and some have contended that the “English Renaissance” has no real tie with the artistic achievements and aims of the Italian artists (Leonardo da Vinci, Michelangelo, Donatello) who are closely identified with Renaissance visual art.

66- The underlined word “culmination” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.



67- All of the following are mentioned in paragraph 1 EXCEPT ______.



68- According to the passage, which of the following statements is true?



69- Which of the following statements can best be inferred from the passage?



70- In which position marked by [1], [2], [3] or [4], can the following sentence best be inserted in the passage? "Like most of northern Europe, England saw little of these developments until more than a century later."